Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 02:14
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What is the reason for the high rate of unmarried individuals in America, particularly among males?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.